Page 246 SA Orthop J 2021;20(4)

CPD QUESTIONNAIRE. NOVEMBER 2021 VOL 20 NO 4

Impact of correctable mediolateral tibiofemoral subluxation 
on unicompartmental knee arthroplasty implant survival in 
patients with anteromedial osteoarthritis (Oosthuizen CR, 
Maposa I, Magobotha S, Pandit H)
1. Which knee is most suitable for medial unicompartmental 

knee arthroplasty?
a. Isolated medial osteoarthritis without mediolateral 

subluxation A

b. Isolated medial osteoarthritis with mediolateral subluxation B
c. Isolated medial osteoarthritis with anterior cruciate ligament 

rupture C

d. Isolated medial osteoarthritis with patellofemoral joint 
osteoarthritis D

e. Dominant medial osteoarthritis with intact ligaments E
2. How do you confirm the correct diagnosis of medial 

osteoarthritis on X-ray evaluation?
a. Anteroposterior and lateral view radiographs A
b. Anteroposterior, lateral view and skyline view radiographs B
c. Anteroposterior, lateral view, skyline view and 45° 

posteroanterior radiographs C

d. Anteroposterior, lateral view, skyline view and 15° 
posteroanterior radiographs D

e. Anteroposterior, lateral view, skyline view, 15° 
posteroanterior and stress views radiographs E

3. Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty is indicated for 
patients:

a. > 40 years A
b. > 50 years B
c. > 60 years C
d. > 70 years D
e. Any age conforming to the clinical and X-ray indications E
Preoperative asymptomatic bacteriuria in patients undergoing 
total joint arthroplasty in South Africa (Maharaj Z, Pillay T, 
Mokete L, Pietrzak JRT)
4. The prevalence of asymptomatic bacteria in patients 

undergoing total joint arthroplasty is:
a. 22% in a single institution in Gauteng, South Africa A
b. 22% in rural South Africa B
c. 39% in an academic institution in South Africa C
d. 39% in a multicentre study in Gauteng D
e. 22% worldwide E
5. What is the five-year mortality rate for PJI following total 

joint arthroplasty?
a. 12.5% A
b. 5.4% B
c. 27.6% C
d. 21.12% D
e. 1.4% E

Patient-reported outcomes following plantar incisions in foot 
surgery (Alexander AN, Saragas NP, Ferrao PNF) 
6. Which comment below is true regarding incisions made 

parallel to the RSTLs?
a. The incision runs parallel to collagen bundles A
b. It lessens the chance of painful hypertrophic scar formation B
c. The incision runs perpendicular to the axis of muscle 

contraction C

d. It results in finer and stronger scars D
e. All of the above E
7. Which statement regarding plantar fibromatosis is 

incorrect?
a. It is a benign condition A
b. It has a low recurrence rate B
c. It is a locally aggressive fibrous tissue tumour C
d. The presence of skin adherence is a poor prognostic sign D
e. Indications for surgery include pain and local aggressiveness E
8. For which pathology/procedure is a plantar incision not 

indicated?
a. Medial sesamoiditis A
b. Morton’s neuromas B
c. Metatarsal head resection C
d. Ledderhose disease D
e. Turf toe E
Do anatomical contoured plates address scapula body, neck 
and glenoid fractures? A multi-observer consensus study  
(De Wet JJ, Dey R, Vrettos B, Du Plessis JP, Anley C, 
Rachuene PA, Haworth LC, Yimam HM, Sivarasu S,  
Roche SJL)
9. When addressing intra-articular glenoid fractures and 

associated glenoid rim and/or neck fractures, which of the 
following do the authors prefer as first-line treatment of 
these fractures?

a. Cannulated screws A
b. Buttressing plates B
c. Bone grafting (coracoid/iliac crest) C
d. Cerclage wiring D
e. Suture anchors E

10. Isolated scapula fractures are rare and account for what 
percentage of upper limb fractures?

a. 1–2% A
b. 3–5% B
c. 7–8% C
d. 9–10% D
e. 10% E

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Page 248 SA Orthop J 2021;20(4)

The short-term outcomes of hip arthrodesis in children and 
adolescents with end-stage hip disease (Mniki TA, Maré PH, 
Marais LC, Thompson DM)

11. The commonest cause for symptomatic end-stage hip 
disease in children and adolescents is:

a. Trauma A
b. Post-infective sequala B
c. Metabolic/systemic disease C
d. Neuromuscular disorders D
e. Developmental hip disorders E
12. Careful patient selection for hip arthrodesis is important 

and indicated in children and adolescents presenting with:
a. Active septic arthritis A
b. Polyarticular inflammatory disease B
c. Monoarticular non-inflammatory end-stage hip disease C
d. Bilateral developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) D
e. Ipsilateral knee fixed flexion contracture E
Incidence of radius shortening following intramedullary nail 
fixation for gunshot fractures: a retrospective radiological 
audit (Abramson M, Maqungo S, Dey R, Laubscher M)

13. What is the most accurate way of assessing radial 
shortening?

a. Using Evans rule A
b. Ulnar variance on X-ray B
c. Clinical examination of radial styloid C
d. Circle X-ray method D
e. Using the Watson’s shift test E
14. What is considered a normal ulnar variance?
a. 0.9 mm A
b. 1.5 mm B
c. −0.9 mm C
d. −1.5 mm D
e. −2.0 mm E
15. Common complications of radial shortening include all of 

the following except:
a. Reduced pro-supination A
b. Reduced wrist flexion/extension B
c. Reduced grip strength C
d. Ulnar abutment syndrome D
e. Early-onset arthrosis E
Distal radius fractures: current concepts (Rachuene PA, Du 
Toit FJ, Tsolo GK, Khanyile SM, Tladi MJ, Golele SS)

16. Which of the following is true regarding acute carpal tunnel 
syndrome in patients with distal radius fractures (DRFs)?

a. Prophylactic carpal tunnel release should be performed in all 
patients with DRFs A

b. Delayed carpal tunnel release of more than 6 hours is 
associated with irreversible nerve damage B

c. Delayed carpal tunnel release of more than 16 hours is 
associated with irreversible nerve damage C

d. Delayed carpal tunnel release of more than 36 hours is 
associated with irreversible nerve damage D

e. Delayed carpal tunnel release of more than 26 hours is 
associated with irreversible nerve damage E

17. With regard to stable extra-articular distal radius fractures, 
which of the following is true?

a. Closed reduction with minimum two K-wire fixation and 40° 
crossing angle is considered a stable fixation A

b. Closed reduction with minimum three K-wires fixation and 
40° crossing angle is considered a stable fixation B

c. Closed reduction with minimum three K-wires fixation and 
20° crossing angle is considered a stable fixation C

d. Closed reduction with minimum two K-wires fixation and 90° 
crossing angle is considered a stable fixation D

e. ORIF is the only recommended choice in these patients E
18. Sarcopaenia is a disorder associated with loss of muscle 

mass; in patients with distal radius fractures (DRFs) which 
of the following statements is false?

a. Sarcopaenia is prevalent in elderly patients A
b. Sarcopaenia is closely related to osteoporosis B
c. Sarcopaenia is associated with poor functional outcomes in 

patients with distal radius fractures C

d. Sarcopaenia affects females only D
e. Literature reports slightly higher prevalence of sarcopaenia 

in male patients with DRFs compared to females E

Minimally invasive subcutaneous anterior fixation of pelvic 
fractures in the elderly: case report and literature review 
(Strydom S, Snyckers CH)

19. What is the most common complication with minimally 
invasive subcutaneous anterior pelvis fixation?

a. Patient discomfort A
b. Surgical site infection B
c. Symptomatic heterotropic ossification C
d. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve impingement D
e. Significant intraoperative blood loss E

20. Which statement regarding minimally invasive 
subcutaneous anterior pelvis fixation techniques is false?

a. It allows for easier nursing compared to Ex-fix A
b. Patients need to remain non-weight-bearing for six weeks 

postoperatively B

c. It should not be used in isolation for combined anterior and 
posterior instability C

d. It can be used in patients with osteoporosis D
e. They combine the low-profile benefits of internal plate 

fixation with Ex-fix principles E

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